USACE Contracting Officer Review Board (CORB) Practice Test

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• Which of the following are the three basic fiscal constraints for appropriated funds?
• What is the difference between obligation and commitment of funds?
• Under the FAR 52.215-8 order of precedence, which document takes precedence when the Specifications conflict with the Schedule (excluding specifications)?
• Who is responsible for the cost of repair of Government Furnished Property?
• What does the Berry Amendment do?
• What mentoring method is described for a new Contract Specialist?
• Where is information about the COR program located?
• Which CPARS requirement is essential when giving a rating other than Satisfactory?
• Which regulation references the limitation on the architect-engineer contract price for design services?
• What is the threshold for Justification for Sole Source Award to 8(a)?
• For a non-ANC 8(a) company, what is the sole-source ceiling?
• What does the lead-time exception relate to in incremental funding, and why did it not apply in the CY13 computer example?
• What are some of the benefits of competition in federal contracting?
• How is an Unsolicited Proposal defined?
• Which of the following is an example of an inherently governmental function?
• Which of the following is a bona fide measurement of the Bona Fide Need Rule for appropriations?
• Who appoints the Source Selection Authority for contracts valued between 100 million and 500 million?
• Which elements are included in performance-based requirements?
• Which action would constitute a violation of the Anti-deficiency Act?
• Which is NOT an exception to certified cost & pricing for actions over $2M?
• What is the act of approving an unauthorized commitment called?
• Under what condition may the KO withhold payment on a contract?
• OCI stands for which term in contracting context?
• When should a Letter Contract be issued?
• When evaluating whether to use year-end funds to purchase replenishment spares, what two major concerns must you address?
• Which of the following is commonly cited as an inadequacy in requirements or PWS that could reduce competition?
• Small Business is selected to be awarded a contract, but they do not meet the responsibility criteria - what must you do?
• Threshold and approval for D&F for 'Use of letter contracts (undefinitized contract actions)'
• Which law’s violations are listed as grounds to withhold payments on a contract?
• Severable services may be funded in what manner?
• Which official approves the Justification and Approval (JA) for contract actions up to $750,000?
• What are the exceptions to the Fair Opportunity to Compete concept for orders under multiple-awards contracts?
• Which actions are prohibited for a debarred contractor unless the agency head makes a written determination?
• In Design Build procurement, what is the primary advantage?
• Which source selection process allows for a tradeoff between non-cost factors and cost/price to achieve best value?
• Which of the following is NOT a stated purpose of FPDS-NG Contract Action Reports (CARs)?
• Who maintains contractual authority for contracts under the SAT?
• Which item must not be disclosed in a pre-award debriefing?
• UCF stands for what?
• Which threshold triggers formal acquisition planning requirements?
• What fiscal issue arises when a PCO uses FYXX O&M funds to acquire computers that could be delivered immediately, but are intended for a future building?
• Define Severable and Non-severable services and differentiate between the two.
• Which office provides written legal sufficiency for bid-related issues?
• Which of the following statements about Blanket Purchase Agreements is true?
• Bona Fide Needs rule: In severable services, when must service begin?
• A Blanket Purchase Agreement can be used only if no existing requirements contract exists for the same supply/service.
• Which statement is true regarding AQC Plan and Acq Strategy usage?
• Which statement correctly characterizes non-severable service contracts?
• Who may delegate certification authority for requirements valued less than what amount?
• Which statement correctly describes non-severable versus severable service contracts in terms of funding and period of performance?
• What does D&F stand for in option exercise determinations?
• What is Phase One in the Two-Phase Design Build Selection Procedure?
• How many phases are listed for PDBP?
• Under Buy American Act guidance, when should FAR 52.225-9 be included?
• Which statement best describes the authority of a Contracting Officer?
• Which item is NOT listed as a benefit of competition?
• If preparing to exercise an option year on a contract, what must you have to exercise the option?
• Phase One is based on qualification proposals; Phase Two is limited to the most highly qualified firms that submit technical proposals and may include preliminary design and price proposals. Which description matches this process?
• If negotiations reveal errors in the Government estimate, what action is required?
• Which modification is typically bilateral?
• When must a BCOES be received?
• Is it permissible to have a non-Government contractor employee as chief of the technical evaluation team and a voting member of the source selection board?
• Congressional notification is required for awards above what amount, and who approves?
• What does performance-based mean?
• BCOES applicability applies to which type of contracts?
• What is a personal services contract?
• Which statements describe an Administrative Contracting Officer under USACE?
• What happens in Phase Two of the Two-Phase Design Build selection?
• What makes a contractor responsible?
• In simplified acquisitions, when is a contract established?
• Which statutory authority corresponds to permitting contracting without full and open competition due to a sole-source requirement?
• If a contractor is debarred, suspended, or proposed for debarment, what is allowed regarding contracts in existence at the time of debarment?
• Under DFARS, when can a fixed-price contract be incrementally funded with funds from multiple fiscal years?
• Which statement best describes a Certificate of Current Cost or Pricing Data?
• The depth of pre-negotiation analysis should relate to which factors?
• Under IAW UAI, which authority approves an award for Military Construction if the IGE exceeds 15%?
• For non-commercial procurements over $750k, what data are required and what analysis is performed?
• Under water procurement policy, when may bottled water be purchased?
• What does HCA stand for?
• Who makes the final Source Selection decision and writes the SSDD?
• When should a COR be nominated in the acquisition process?
• Which body may review agency decisions to determine whether a function is inherently governmental?
• In two-phase selection procedures, phase-one may be issued with what type of information?
• A UCA may remain unsettled for up to how many months?
• Before negotiation, which prices must POM include?
• If a small business appears to be the apparent awardee but cannot be determined responsible, what action should you take?
• What is the maximum allowed proposal price above the IGCE for Civil Works Contracts?
• The Price Negotiation Memorandum (PNM) serves what purpose?
• Brand-name descriptions, and other descriptions that permit offers of products other than those named, provide for full and open competition and do not require justifications.
• Which statement best describes a non-personal services contract?
• What is the general applicability of Project Labor Agreements (PLAs)?
• In CPARS, what is the purpose of the small business narrative?
• Define an Excusable Delay.
• Which contract type places full responsibility for performance costs and resulting profit on the contractor?
• If a Davis-Bacon wage rate changes after a source selection decision has been made but before award on a construction RFP, what must you do?
• When evaluating whether Contractor A can bid as a prime on a new source selection while they will provide testing under the current contract, which factor must be avoided?
• Which set of elements constitutes a binding contract?
• In Design Bid Build, how are the owner’s contracts arranged?
• Design Build procurement will always use a two-step process, consisting of receiving capabilities and receiving proposals.
• Which statement correctly describes Progress Payments under FAR 32.104?
• Which statement describes a key purpose of a Blanket Purchase Agreement?
• Where is information on Inherently Government Functions located?
• Which official approves the JA for actions greater than $100,000,000?
• Who must authorize in writing compelling reasons for renewal or extension of current contracts with a debarred contractor?
• What are the standard minimum synopsis and solicitation posting durations for construction procurements?
• Which statement best describes severable services?
• Who approves the Acquisition/Contract Strategy for values less than $93 million?
• Which statement correctly describes bundling and consolidation?
• What is the dollar threshold that establishes the need for a Department of Labor wage determination?
• Which statement best describes clarifications in the context of the source selection?
• Discussions, clarifications, and communications differ in that discussions require what?
• Which reference is cited for threshold and approval for determination of consolidation?
• Formal acquisition plans are required for programs with total cost at least how much?
• Which outcome is most likely from performing a BCOES review before construction contracts?
• Under two-phase procedures, the Phase-Two procurement is issued after Phase-One and includes the remainder.
• Which system should be discontinued for transmitting/receiving proposals according to policy?
• For a two-phase design-build selection, what is the threshold amount for a determination that having more than five offerors is in the Government's interest?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as one of the seven exceptions that allow non-competitive award?
• The clause 'Conditions upon availability of funds' is included in which contract clause?
• Who is the district chief of contracting?
• Which item is included in a post-award debriefing (when applicable)?
• How are GFP adjustments handled during contract administration?
• What is the objective of the determination to reject offers suspected of being collusive when the disclosure was made to restrict competition?
• Which statement best reflects the six percent limitation for AE design costs and what is included?
• For urgent procurements, which J&A element must be included?
• In FAR Part 15, what procedures are used to weigh a PLA against other offers?
• Who approves the ratification authority for contract actions greater than $100,000?
• Explain the legal effect of quotes and how a contractor indicates acceptance of a purchase order.
• Which option describes the proper method to address an organizational conflict of interest in a solicitation?
• A bridge contract is best described as which of the following?
• Which statement best describes LPTA?
• What does the acronym ACO stand for in this contracting context?
• Under FAR 45, can GFP be included in a solicitation and the resulting contract, and what steps are necessary?
• If you disagree with the Office of Counsel, what is the recommended action?
• Which official approves the JA for actions between $15,000,000 and $100,000,000?
• What is a key rule for OMA funds regarding cross-year obligations?
• Who is the USACE Ombudsman and what is the protest threshold?
• Who signs RFP letters for construction modifications above the ACO warrant threshold?
• In Design Bid Build, when must BCOES be signed and prepared?
• Under what condition can full and open competition be bypassed for an unsolicited proposal?
• For acquisition strategy of not performance-based services, what threshold requires SCO approval?
• Which official approves the JA for actions between $750,000 and $15,000,000?
• Who approves the Acquisition/Contract Strategy for values greater than $93 million?
• Which module should contracting officers use to post solicitations, attachments, and amendments?
• Which market research technique involves querying a government-wide database of contracts and procurement instruments?
• Who signs the warrant for an Administrative Contracting Officer?
• Which procedure is used for procurements under FAR Part 13?
• Which term describes minor issues discussed prior to establishing the competitive range to improve understanding of proposals?
• Which of the following is a technique to promote early exchange of information with industry?
• Under IAW UAI, if a Civil Works contract exceeds the IGE by 25%, which authority approves?
• Threshold and approval for D&F 'Contract Type - Incentive Contracts'
• Which COR designation corresponds to the most complex and high-risk contracts?
• Posting solicitations and related documents via PIEE will automatically transmit to which system?
• Which statement describes Design-Bid-Build?
• Which entity is primarily responsible for evaluating proposals in the Source Selection process?
• Threshold and approval for determination of consolidation.
• Expired appropriations have what characteristic?
• Who is delegated the authority under DFARS 215.371 to waive the requirement to resolicit for an additional period of at least 30 days?
• Penalties for a violation of the ADA may include which of the following?
• Two-phase design-build selection procedures threshold references include which documents?
• What are the two broad categories used to group government contract types?
• Which regulations govern ratification of unauthorized commitments?
• What is an unauthorized commitment and who ratifies unauthorized commitments exceeding $100,000?
• For acquisitions valued between 10 million and 100 million, who has approval authority?
• Which document designates the ACO for each contract?
• Which item represents a D&F responsibility criterion?
• What happens to proposals not included in the competitive range?
• Can you award a contract to an offeror other than the SSA's recommended choice?
• Which statement best contrasts Progress Payments and Performance Based Payments?
• Which order type is used to procure services?
• Which statement correctly describes unilateral option exercise?
• What is the threshold for requiring certified cost or pricing data?
• Which of the following is the minimum posting duration for J&As?
• What is the purpose of the Request for Services Contract Approval form?
• Where is the contracting officer authority defined?
• What is the purpose of the Bona Fide Need Rule in obligations and appropriations?
• If leadership directs actions contrary to your legal guidance, what is the proper course of action?
• Threshold and approval for D&F 'Contract Type - Cost-Reimbursement'
• For a contract estimated at $350M, who is the appointing authority for source selection?
• Which reference group is cited for Acquisition Strategy threshold for not-performance-based services?
• Which statement best captures the distinction between 'Responsive' and 'Responsible' bidders?
• What must the SSP address regarding PLA?
• Which statement reflects a key to effective competition?
• Which action is NOT within the COR's authority?
• In the Two-Phase Design Build Selection Procedure, which statement is true?
• Which FAR Part covers consolidation?
• What is the purpose of MATOC in the context of multiple award task order contracts?
• What is the difference between SAT and SAP?
• Synopsis is required if the action threshold is exceeded by how much?
• Under FAR 12.603, when a written solicitation will be issued, what procedure is used to reduce the time required to solicit and award contracts for the acquisition of commercial items?
• In a civil works procurement where proposals are double the IGE but within 1% of each other and the SSA discounts the IGE, what should the Contracting Officer do?
• Which statement correctly describes non-severable service contracts under the Bona Fide Need Rule?
• Where is the documents review and approval matrix located?
• In a post-award debriefing, which item is typically disclosed?
• Under the Bona Fide Need Rule, when is the bona fide need for supply items determined?
• Issuing a letter authorizing expenditures before funds are available would be anti-deficient.
• Under multiple-awards contracts, an order must exceed what amount to require fair opportunity, unless exceptions apply?
• During which stage must the proposed use of a PLA be evaluated?
• Which of the following is an example of a non-severable contract?
• FAR Part 36 covers which type of contracts?
• Which document lists the threshold for Acquisition Strategy for not performance-based services?
• What statement is true about costs in a contract: allocable vs allowable?
• What penalties may result from a willful Anti-deficiency Act violation?
• Who signs the designation letter for each contract the ACO is involved with?
• BCOES stands for which of the following?
• Which item is listed as an example of an end item under the Berry Amendment?
• What is the micro-purchase threshold?
• Under fixed-price contracts, when is incremental funding permissible?
• Which would not be considered an Excusable Delay?
• What is the usual threshold for J&A signed by the alternate SCO?
• Which J&A type is posted with the solicitation?
• Who is responsible for the compliance review?
• In a full and open competitive negotiated acquisition, what two criteria determine which proposals are placed in the competitive range for discussions?
• Under 13 CFR 124.506b, what is the sole-source threshold for ANC 8(a) companies without and with J&A?
• Which market research technique involves early engagement with potential offerors through structured discussions?
• How does a contractor indicate acceptance of a purchase order?
• For Design Bid Build, what are the required synopsis and solicitation posting days?
• For a formal IGE over the SAT, which item is NOT a stated requirement?
• Which FAR provisions are cited for the 8(a) sole-source justification?
• In CPARS performance assessments, which attributes contribute to a high-quality CPARS entry?
• SCO stands for which role in contracting?
• What avenue of recourse do contractors have when they feel they are owed additional time or are entitled to damages from the Government on a contract?
• In appropriation constraints, Bona Fide Need refers to what?
• In a sole-source procurement with a single offer and a 30-day receipt period, what action must the contracting officer take to determine if the offered price is fair and reasonable?
• What is a bridge contract and why is it a concern?
• Which of the following is NOT an element of an IGE?
• What does NTE stand for in this context?
• An Acquisition Strategy document is required for Army service acquisitions greater than the Simplified Acquisition Threshold. How is the approval authority determined?
• Under a Blanket Purchase Agreement, when is money obligated?
• When acquiring commercial items, which contract types are normally used and which are prohibited?
• When should UCA/Letter Contracts be used?
• Which determinations must be made prior to exercising an option?
• Which statement best describes the difference between price analysis and cost analysis?
• What is the main purpose of the post award conference/orientation/start to work meeting?
• Which statement best defines a responsible contractor?
• Under which conditions are vendors ranked?
• Statutory fee limitation for design by an AE form on a GOV contract, and what is included?
• Is a J&A required for brand-name or equal specifications?
• Under FAR 15.404-1(a)(3), which statement accurately describes when to use cost analysis and price analysis?
• Under J&A posting requirements, the justification must be publicly available within how many days after contract award, except for certain circumstances?
• What is the Simplified Acquisition Threshold (SAT) in the contingency contracting thresholds?
• If unauthorized changes are made by unauthorized personnel, who must be notified?
• What is consideration?
• What does D&F stand for in contracting practices?
• The SSEB documents its decision in which document?
• Under what cost threshold is the use of operating and maintenance (O&M) funds for construction allowed?
• When an acquisition contains brand name specifications, what must the contracting officer include with the solicitation?
• What defines a latent defect?
• Who has the authority to exempt from the use of the Uniform Contract Format (UCF) in individual contracts?
• Urgent and Compelling J&A posting timeframe?
• Which is a possible penalty under the Anti-deficiency Act?
• In Phase Two, what may be included with technical proposals?
• Kick-off meeting timing occurs how many days before the start of performance?
• Under a UCA, you may not obligate more than what percentage of the NTE?
• Who is typically the command SCO?
• Waivers for OCI are referenced under which FAR provision?
• Under IAW UAI, if an O&M construction award exceeds the IGE by 15%, who approves?
• In simplified acquisitions, which scenario establishes a binding contract?
• Which statement about NTE inclusion in a UCA is true?
• One-step selection procedure is authorized for military construction projects under what conditions?
• In contract formation, which two elements must consideration have?
• Which statement about GFP disposition at contract end is correct?
• Which statement describes an active appropriation?
• Which statement best characterizes clarifications, communications, and discussions during a competitive source selection?
• Under which contract actions is a Command Service Executive (CSE) Memo required?
• Which exception allows DoD agencies to obligate funds at contract award to finance a severable service contract with a period of performance not to exceed 12 months?
• What are liquidated damages and when can they be used?
• Which documents specify the Acquisition Strategy thresholds?
• Why is it important to assure FPDS-NG Contract Action Reports (CARs) are complete and accurate?
• Which element is required for an Urgent and Compelling J&A and must be posted within 30 days of contract award?
• When should the Service Contract Approval Form be included in the contract file?
• Which option correctly lists the four items to determine when a CSE Memo is required—viewed for planning and approval coordination?
• Why is contract closeout important?
• Threshold and approval for D&F for 'Other than full and open competitions for International Agreement competitive restriction'
• Under Lowest Price Technically Acceptable (LPTA), which statement best describes when LPTA is appropriate?
• Where do you find contracting by negotiation in the UAI?
• FF&E stands for what in building projects?
• Which factor is commonly considered in an emergency acquisition?
• Which statement best describes the Anti-deficiency Act (ADA)?
• Threshold and approval for D&F for 'Justification of Contract Type - Award-Fee Contracts'
• Which statement about CAS is correct?
• Which statement best describes the elements of a legally binding contract?
• Which technique involves reviewing catalogs and other generally available product literature?
• When is a detailed IGE required?
• Threshold and approval for D&F for 'Use of Time and Material (T&M) Contract and Labor-hour Contract prior to execution of the base period or any option periods of three years or less'
• Which step follows 'Conduct initial proposal evaluations' in the Source Selection Procedures?
• Which statement about UCA approvals is true?
• Which statement best describes a Trade-Off approach in procurement?
• What is an unauthorized commitment?
• MATOC meaning
• How many days does a cure notice grant the contractor to cure the deficiency?
• When must the Davis-Bacon/Wage Determination be pulled?
• What are the three types of indefinite-delivery contracts and what is the use for each type?
• Which of the following is a factor that may justify termination for default?
• The Administrative Contracting Officer under USACE must be which type of employee?
• What is a Delivery Order used for?
• Which statement best describes the difference between Acquisition Plan and Acquisition Strategy?
• Which analysis is used to evaluate total price without examining the individual cost elements and is required for all acquisitions?
• Which three limitations must be checked prior to making new obligations?
• What does BCOES evaluate?
• If leadership direction conflicts with mandatory legal guidance, what is the proper course of action?
• Which FAR clauses define a personal services contract?
• Why is the commerciality determination important?
• How do you determine whether a change is within the scope of the contract?
• If the PCO is not SSA, who appoints the SSA for contracts under $100 million?
• Which regulations govern the Price Negotiation Memorandum (PNM) requirements?
• Which clauses caution the contractor that costs cannot be incurred beyond the amount allotted and that the Government is not obligated to pay beyond that amount?
• Which of the following is NOT a PDBP phase?
• Which FAR Part covers Cost Accounting Standards (CAS)?
• Why is CPARS data used by other PCOs?
• Which training tools are recommended for a new Contract Specialist to accomplish duties?
• What is included in a Stop Work Order?
• Which documents should the Procuring Contracting Officer review to determine if a change is within the scope of the contract?
• What is the typical monetary limit for an ACO's authority to administer construction contracts and modifications?
• Where in the contract can site visit information be found?
• What is the first step a Contracting Officer should take when the COR reports that services were not performed?
• For an estimated contract value of $120,000,000, who is the SSA appointment?
• Offeror experience and past performance are distinguished by which principle?
• According to FAR 10.002(b)(1), how long is market research considered relevant?
• Describe the difference between a Statement of Work (SOW) and a Performance Work Statement (PWS) and when each is appropriate.
• Organizational Conflict of Interest (OCI) written analysis to avoid, mitigate, or neutralize a potential or actual OCI has what threshold?
• In a fiscal year end purchase with no funds available, what must be obtained before proceeding?
• Which option is a valid alternative to finalizing a PWS when the PDT struggles to draft a proposal?
• Under DFARS 201.602, a COR is required for which condition?
• What must be done before selecting LPTA for construction projects under NDAA Sections 813 & 822?
• Pre-award debriefings must include which of the following at a minimum?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the seven exceptions to full and open competition?
• For commercial item acquisitions under FAR 12.207, which contract types are acceptable?
• Which statement describes an inherently governmental function?
• If a contractor is listed on the List of Parties Excluded from Federal Procurement and Non-procurement Programs, what is the rule on continuation of current contracts with the contractor?